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Verse (4:12), Word 54 - Quranic Grammar


The 54th word of verse (4:12) is an indefinite feminine noun and is in the accusative case (منصوب). The noun's triliteral root is kāf lām lām (ك ل ل).

Chapter (4) sūrat l-nisāa (The Women)

(has) no parent or child
N – accusative feminine indefinite noun اسم منصوب

Verse (4:12)

The analysis above refers to the twelfth verse of chapter 4 (sūrat l-nisāa):

Sahih International: And for you is half of what your wives leave if they have no child. But if they have a child, for you is one fourth of what they leave, after any bequest they [may have] made or debt. And for the wives is one fourth if you leave no child. But if you leave a child, then for them is an eighth of what you leave, after any bequest you [may have] made or debt. And if a man or woman leaves neither ascendants nor descendants but has a brother or a sister, then for each one of them is a sixth. But if they are more than two, they share a third, after any bequest which was made or debt, as long as there is no detriment [caused]. [This is] an ordinance from Allah , and Allah is Knowing and Forbearing.

See Also

10 messages

Mazhar A. Nurani

13th January, 2015

It is mentioned in lexicons that it is a Verbal Noun. In the sentence it is circumstantial clause, the state in which a man or woman is dying.

To say "no child" is incorrect since such a person can have one son as progeny. If he did not have a son, it is pecifically mentioned in 4:176. Kalala is a situation where the man or woman is spouseless but can have a single son and single parent surviving at the time of his or her death.

Abdul Rahman

29th January, 2015

Brother Mazhar, what is the basis for your assertion that the meaning of kalālatan as given here is incorrect? Please also refer to 4:176 which makes the meaning of this word even clearer. Please cite the authority for this assertion of yours which is contrary to all the translations and tafseer books which I have consulted so far. "Kalala is a situation where the man or woman is spouseless but can have a single son and single parent surviving at the time of his or her death."

Abdul Rahman

30th January, 2015

This is from tafsir of Fairuz Abadi

{ يُورَثُ كَلاَلَةً } يورث ماله إلى كلالة والكلالة هي الإخوة والأخوات من الأم { أَو ٱمْرَأَةٌ } أو كانت امرأة مثل ذلك ويقال الكلالة ما خلا الولد والوالد ويقال الكلالة هي المال الذي لا يرثه والد ولا ولد

This is from Samarqandi

{ وَإِن كَانَ رَجُلٌ يُورَثُ كَلَـٰلَةً } والكلالة ما خلا الوالد والولد.

And this from Muqatil (died 150 H.)

ثم قال عز وجل: { وَإِن كَانَ رَجُلٌ يُورَثُ كَلاَلَةً أَو ٱمْرَأَةٌ } فيها تقديم، { يُورَثُ كَلاَلَةً } ، والكلالة الميت يموت وليس له ولد ولا والد ولا جد،

Mazhar A. Nurani

31st January, 2015

Brother Abdul Rahman, I know what is stated in earlier exegeses. Grand Qur'aan is explicit. It is free of ambiguity. All ground situations are covered in just three Ayahs about inheritance.

One situation was not covered, people asked for ruling. The situation is about a bachelor/spouseless person without bereaved by a son.

Verbal Noun: accusative. It is intriguing that people have been debating about this verbal noun as to its meanings and peculiarities of the person who is in such state-circumstance. This man or woman cannot be he/she who are already mentioned. He is not a person who is bereaved by a single daughter, two daughters or grouped progenies; he is not a person whose parents, both mother and father are alive; and he is not a person whose spouse is bereaved. It refers to that state of a person when the spouse is already dead or divorced and has single parent, either mother or father, surviving at the time of his death. In addition to this peculiar situation, such man may or may not have a surviving son at the time of his death. Here in 4:12 Ayah it is evident that this spouseless man or woman does have a surviving son to inherit from the inheritance.

Kindly see it by putting this link in browser:


Abdul Rahman

4th February, 2015

You said: "Here in 4:12 Ayah it is evident that this spouseless man or woman does have a surviving son to inherit from the inheritance."

How is this evident?

The website you refer to does not mention any authority for this ruling that you asserted. What madhhab adheres to this ruling? None of the four Sunni madhhabs agree with your ruling, as far as I am aware. Please give a reference. My understanding is, if a person dies leaving a son, and there are no there Quranic heirs -- wife, daughter, mother, father - then he inherits the whole estate. Such a person has NOT died in "kalalah".

Mazhar A. Nurani

4th February, 2015

Estate cannot be inherited by one person. It will contradict the verdict of Allah given in 4:33.

Know it: Our Majesty has declared relatives and under patronage persons; in order of relative nearness, for every deceased man and woman to benefit partially in that the Mother and Father and relatively Nearer Relatives have left behind.

Take note: about those whom your right hand had pledged responsibility, therefore, you people grant them their payable obligation-fortune in the inheritance. [R 4:33]

Mwali is plural signifying three or more. The article is based on the words of Qur'aan and not on man made madhab.

Abdul Rahman

5th February, 2015

4:33 is a general aya. It does not talk about distribution of the estate. If a person dies leaving just a son, no daughter, no wife, no parent -- then the son gets the whole estate, even though the deceased also left sisters and brothers, uncles, adopted children etc. etc.

Mazhar A. Nurani

5th February, 2015

Brother Abdul Rahman, Which ayah or which sentence of some ayah allocates the entire estate to one son?

Abdul Rahman

6th February, 2015

This is a portion of the translation of the Tafseer Jalalaian commentary on verse 4:11

"God charges you, He commands you, concerning, the matter of, your children, with what He will mention: to the male, of them, the equivalent of the portion, the lot, of two females, if there are two [women] with him, so that half the property is his, and the other half is theirs; if there is only one female with him, then she has

a third, and he receives two thirds; if he is the only one, he takes it all;............

He (the son of the deceased) takes it all... when he is the only heir, no daughters, wife (or husband) or parents of the deceased.

Mazhar A. Nurani

6th February, 2015

Brother Abdul Rahman, Unfortunately Jalalain is saying that which is not in the Arabic text. He is rather giving his opinion which has no relevance to Arabic text. The sentence has nothing like one-third, two-thirds. "Haze" does not mean ordinal number. The point is explained in the linked article. He also overlooked that the sentence is inverted nominal sentence. Subject is "Mislo" in consecutive possessive phrases.

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