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Verse (7:74), Word 6 - Quranic Grammar


The sixth word of verse (7:74) is a noun in the genitive case (مجرور). The noun's triliteral root is bā ʿayn dāl (ب ع د).

Chapter (7) sūrat l-aʿrāf (The Heights)

N – genitive noun اسم مجرور

Verse (7:74)

The analysis above refers to the 74th verse of chapter 7 (sūrat l-aʿrāf):

Sahih International: And remember when He made you successors after the 'Aad and settled you in the land, [and] you take for yourselves palaces from its plains and carve from the mountains, homes. Then remember the favors of Allah and do not commit abuse on the earth, spreading corruption."

See Also

7 messages


4th July, 2011

Dharf zamaan instead of simply a genitive noun? Since it puts the event after a specific time 'after [the time of] Aad'.

T-time adverb

Walaahu a'alam

Abdul Rahman

5th July, 2011

That's not how it works. If a noun is preceded by a "harf jaar" then it is always "ism majroor". "Zarf zamaan" or time adverb is always accusative.

Mazhar A. Nurani

5th July, 2011


FS has correctly pointed it as Dharf zamaan. It is the first part of Possessive Phrase preceded by a genitive particle. It will have Dhamma, while being in genitive state [as in 2:230 after Min] when it is not joined with construct genitive noun.

Abdul Rahman

5th July, 2011

Better to stick to the classification of the classical grammarians. "ism majroor" has always been good enough for them.


13th July, 2011

Jazakumullahu khairan for the comments, just wanted a clarification on the dharf zamaan issue. As far as I understand it the dharf zamaan can be mabnee (non-changeable) and/or mu'rab (can be modified to be accusative or genitive). It is originally mansuub always in the accusative case ( as pointed out by the classical grammarians and Al-Aajroom of course) but apparently it can also come after a harf jar and still be called dharf zamaan. The following is a one example of the places in which dharf zamaan can appear (I quote one here) taken from a standard grammar book:

إذا أضيف لفظاً في حالة الجر .كقوله تعالى من بعد ما جاءتهم البينات

Above the بعد is considered a dharf zamaan, even though it is labelled as ism jar. I might be mistaken so if you can give me some references I would be grateful to update my understanding, wa jazakumullahu khairan.

Abdul Rahman

19th July, 2011

The primary purpose of the science of i3raab is to know the "haraka" (vowel) at the end of a word in its context. Yes, "min ba3du" would be mabnee 3ala al-dhamm (non-changeable upon "u", in the position of accusative) because it is dharf zamaan. But where "ba3di" is in the genitive because of the preceding preposition and a succeeding "mudhaf ilayh" the grammarians generally leave it simply at "ism majroor" so as not to complicate the discussion. Except for rare exceptions, nouns following a preposition will be in the genitive case. In the case of the word "ba3d" --"ism majroor" happens in the vast majority of occurrences of this word.


20th July, 2011

Okay that's fine jazakallahu khairan

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Language Research Group
University of Leeds