Mohammad

17th December, 2011

ASA,

I just can't understand why a verb introduced in the infinitive as 'ayn lam waw still be classified as Form I when it's in the this form (ta' ala). This verb ta' ala looks more like form VI of 'alaw to me. Could any one comment on this?

Mazhar A. Nurani

17th December, 2011

Non mention of Form-VI seems typing omission. Verb [Intransitive]: Perfect; Third person; Singular; Masculine; [Form-VI]. The basic meanings of this Form of Verbs is "Reflexive Causative to be Active Participle". This verb has occurred 14 times in the Grand Qur'aan, mostly interjectionally [something said loudly and abruptly, or something inserted in a text, especially something that interrupts what is being said or alleged]. The greatest lies which the ruling elite of human societies have conjectured in time and space attributing to Allah, the Exalted, are two:

(a) they sculpted idols and assigned them hypothetical feminine names and declared those to people as various iela'aha associating them as partners with Allah, the Exalted;

(2) later on they concocted the conjectural concept that Allah the Exalted, has adopted son and daughters.