Maqbool Ahmad

15th November, 2015

(66:12:17) وَصَدَّقَتْ بِكَلِمَاتِ رَبِّهَا وَكُتُبِهِ وَكَانَتْ مِنَ الْقَانِتِينَ.

why مِنَ الْقَانِتِينَ is not a khabr of كَانَتْ and why الْقَانِتِينَ is masculine?

Abdul Rahman

16th November, 2015

The verb "kaana" is not always "fi'il naaqis" which requires the presence of an "ism" and "khabar". In this context it means "became" and behaves like an ordinary verb. Only Arberry's translation got it right. "And she became (one) of the obedient ones".

الْقَانِتِينَ is masculine because "the obedient ones" include males and females.

Abdul Rahman

16th November, 2015

Please ignore my posting above. It should be rephrased this way:

The verb "kaana" (to be or to become) is in most cases "fi'il naaqis" (deficient verb) which requires the presence of an "ism" and "khabar". In the present example, the phrase من القانتين is not considered the khabar on it own as such, since the khabar is deemed to be an omitted noun to which the prepositional phrase is ultimately connected.

الْقَانِتِينَ is masculine because the expression "the obedient ones" would include males and females.

Abdul Rahman

17th November, 2015

The verb "kaana" is not always "fi'il naaqis" which requires the presence of an "ism" and "khabar". Example: 2:280:2